NOTE: If you have the new question on this test, please comment Question and Multiple-Choice list in form below this article. We will update answers for you in the shortest time. Thank you! We truly value your contribution to the website. 1. Which two components are configured via software in order for a PC to participate in a network environment? (Choose two.)
2. What is the correct order for PDU encapsulation? 3. Which advantage does the store-and-forward switching method have compared with the cut-through switching method?
Explanation: A switch using the store-and-forward switching method performs an error check on an incoming frame by comparing the FCS value against its own FCS calculations after the entire frame is received. In comparison, a switch using the cut-through switching method makes quick forwarding decisions and starts the forwarding process without waiting for the entire frame to be received. Thus a switch using cut-through switching may send invalid frames to the network. The performance of store-and-forward switching is slower compared to cut-through switching performance. Collision detection is monitored by the sending device. Store-and-forward switching does not use IPv4 Layer 3 and 4 information for its forwarding decisions. 4. To revert to a previous configuration, an administrator issues the command copy tftp startup-config on a router and enters the host address and file name when prompted. After the command is completed, why does the current configuration remain unchanged?
5. A small car dealership has a scanner that is attached to the PC of the sales manager. When salesmen need to scan a document, they place the document in the scanner and use their own PCs to control the scanner through software on the PC of the manager. After the document is scanned, they can attach it to an email or upload it into the sales software. What type of network model does this scenario describe?
6. Which media access method requires that an end device send a notification across the media before sending data?
7. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is configured to obtain a dynamic IP address from the DHCP server. PC1 has been shut down for two weeks. When PC1 boots and tries to request an available IP address, which
destination IP address will PC1 place in the IP
header?
Explanation: When a host boots and has been configured for dynamic IP addressing, the device tries to obtain a valid IP address. It sends a DHCPDISCOVER message. This is a broadcast message because the DHCP server address is unknown (by design). The destination IP address in the IP header is 255.255.255.255 and the destination MAC address is FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF. 8. Which statement is true about IPv6 addresses?
9. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP addressing scheme should be
changed?
10. What is the most effective way to mitigate worm and virus attacks?
11. A particular website does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?
12. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses Telnet to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC
mode?
Explanation: Telnet accesses a network device through the virtual interface configured with the line VTY command. The password configured under this is required to access the user EXEC mode. The password configured under the line console 0 command is required to gain entry through the console port, and the enable and enable secret passwords are used to allow entry into the privileged EXEC mode. 13. In performing a protocol analysis of a network, when should traffic be captured to ensure the most accurate representation of the different traffic types on the network?
14. Refer to the exhibit. A TCP segment from a server has been captured by Wireshark, which is running on a host. What acknowledgement number will the host return for the TCP segment that has been
received?
15. Refer to the exhibit. What is the
link-local IPv6 address of the local computer shown based on the output of the netstat -r
command?
16. A network administrator is checking the system logs and notices unusual connectivity tests to multiple well-known ports on a server. What kind of potential network attack could this indicate?
17. Which technology provides a solution to IPv4 address depletion by allowing multiple devices to share one public IP address?
18. What happens when part of an Internet television transmission is not delivered to the destination?
19. Which three IP addresses are public? (Choose three.)
20. A host is accessing an FTP server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
21. Which IP address is a valid network address?
22. What is the range of host IP addresses for the subnet 172.16.1.32/28?
23. An organization has received the IPv6 network prefix of 2001:db8:1234::/52 from their ISP. How many subnets can be created from this prefix without borrowing bits from the interface ID?
24. Match the application protocols to the correct transport protocols. 25. Which type of static route is configured with a greater administrative distance to provide a backup route to a route learned from a dynamic routing protocol?
Explanation: There are four basic types of static routes. Floating static routes are backup routes that are placed into the routing table if a primary route is lost. A summary static route aggregates several routes into one, reducing the of the routing table. Standard static routes are manually entered routes into the routing table. Default static routes create a gateway of last resort. 26. Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
Explanation: To maintain the MAC address table, the switch uses the source MAC address of the incoming packets and the port that the packets enter. The destination address is used to select the outgoing port. 27. What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?
28. Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
29. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is examining the message in a syslog server. What can be determined from the message?
30. Conpared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)
31. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question.What is the secret keyword that is displayed on the web page?
32. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Which IPv6 address is assigned to the Serial0/0/0 interface on RT2?
33. What is the purpose of a routing protocol?
34. ACLs are used primarily to filter traffic. What are two additional uses of ACLs? (Choose two.)
Explanation: ACLs are used to filter traffic to determine which packets will be permitted or denied through the router and which packets will be subject to policy-based routing. ACLs can also be used to identify traffic that requires NAT and QoS services. Prefix lists are used to control which routes will be redistributed or advertised to other routers. 35. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)
36. Employees of a company connect their wireless laptop computers to the enterprise LAN via wireless access points that are cabled to the Ethernet ports of switches. At which layer of the three-layer hierarchical network design model do these switches operate?
37. Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
38. Refer to the exhibit. What will the router do with a packet that has a destination IP address of
192.168.12.227?
39. A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)
40. Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
Explanation: A native VLAN carries untagged traffic, which is traffic that does not come from a VLAN. A data VLAN carries user-generated traffic. A management VLAN carries management traffic. 41. Compared with dynamic routes, what are two advantages of using static routes on a router? (Choose two.)
Explain: 42. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
Explanation: Static routes are prone to errors from incorrect configuration by the administrator. They do not scale well, because the routes must be manually reconfigured to accommodate a growing network. Intervention is required each time a route change is necessary. They do provide better security, use less bandwidth, and provide a known path to the destination. 43. What is the most likely scenario in which the WAN interface of a router would be configured as a DHCP client to be assigned a dynamic IP address from an ISP?
Explanation: SOHO and home broadband routers are typically set to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from the ISP. The IP address that is assigned is typically a dynamic address to reduce the cost, but a static IP address is possible with more cost. However, if the router is assigned a dynamic IP address, DNS issues will result in the web server behind the router not being easily accessible to the public. Routers are typically also gateways for LANs, but this has no bearing on whether the router is configured as a DHCP client on its WAN link or not. Likewise, a router can be configured to be a DHCP client in order to obtain an IP address from the ISP, but at the same time, it can be configured as a DHCP server to serve the IP addressing for the devices on its LAN. 44. What are two characteristics of link-state protocols compared to distance vector protocols? (Choose two.)
45. Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
46. Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the
topology?
47. A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Explanation: VLANs create logical broadcast domains that can span multiple VLAN segments. Ethernet frames that are sent by a device on a specific VLAN can only be seen by other devices in the same VLAN. 48. What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
49. A small-sized company has 30 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. The two servers must be assigned public IP addresses so they are reachable from the outside world. What technology should the company implement in order to allow all workstations to access services over the Internet simultaneously?
Explanation: The company allocated only 6 usable host public addresses. Two public addresses should be assigned to the two servers. Since the four remaining public addresses are not enough for the 30 clients, NAT must be implemented for internal workstations to access the Internet. Therefore, the company should use PAT, also known as NAT with overload. DHCP can be used to dynamically assign internal private IP addresses to the workstations, but cannot provide the NAT service required. 50. Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?
51. Open the PT Activity. Perform the tasks in the activity instructions and then answer the question. Fill in the blank. Do not use abbreviations.What is the missing
command on S1? Download PDF File below: [sociallocker id=”54558″] [/sociallocker] |